SCP 자격증 SC0-411 시험덤프

IT인증시험에 도전해보려는 분들은 회사에 다니는 분들이 대부분입니다. 승진을 위해서나 연봉협상을 위해서나 자격증 취득은 지금시대의 필수입니다. ITExamDump의SCP인증 SC0-411덤프는 회사다니느라 바쁜 나날을 보내고 있는 분들을 위해 준비한 시험준비공부자료입니다. ITExamDump의SCP인증 SC0-411덤프를 구매하여 pdf버전을 공부하고 소프트웨어버전으로 시험환경을 익혀 시험보는게 두렵지 않게 해드립니다. 문제가 적고 가격이 저렴해 누구나 부담없이 애용 가능합니다. ITExamDump의SCP인증 SC0-411덤프를 데려가 주시면 기적을 안겨드릴게요.

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시험 번호/코드: SC0-411
시험 이름: SCP (Hardening the Infrastructure (HTI))
당신이 구입하기 전에 시도
일년동안 무료 업데이트
100% 환불보장약속
100% 합격율 보장
Q&A: 410 문항
업데이트: 2013-11-28

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ITExamDump는SCP SC0-411시험을 패스할 수 있는 아주 좋은 사이트입니다. ITExamDump은 아주 알맞게 최고의SCP SC0-411시험문제와 답 내용을 만들어 냅니다. 덤프는 기존의 시험문제와 답과 시험문제분석 등입니다. ITExamDump에서 제공하는SCP SC0-411시험자료의 문제와 답은 실제시험의 문제와 답과 아주 비슷합니다.

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NO.1 When you took over the security responsibilities at your office, you noticed there
were no warning banners on any of the equipment. You have decided to create a
warning login banner on your Cisco router. Which of the following shows the
correct syntax for the banner creation?
A. banner login C Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
B. login banner C Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
C. banner login Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
D. login banner Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this device.
E. banner logging C Restricted access. Only authorized users allowed to access this
device. C
Answer: A

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NO.2 If an attacker uses a program that sends thousands of email messages to every user
of the network, some of them with over 50MB attachments. What are the possible
consequences to the email server in the network?
A. Server hard disk can fill to capacity
B. Client hard disks can fill to capacity
C. Server can completely crash
D. Network bandwidth can be used up
E. Clients cannot receive new email messages
Answer: AC

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NO.3 You are reviewing the Xinetd configuration file for the ftp service. If the following
line found in this file, what is the line's function?
redirect = 192.168.10.1 3456
A. That only 192.168.10.1 can make ftp requests
B. That only hosts in the 192.168.10.0/24 network can make ftp requests
C. That only 3456 connections are allowed to the ftp service on 192.168.10.1
D. That the overall Xinetd configuration has redirect lines in it
E. That the ftp service is redirected to IP 192.168.10.1 on port 3456
Answer: E

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NO.4 What is the function of the HFNetChk tool from Microsoft?
A. To check for the current Hotfixes that are available from Microsoft
B. It is an upgrade to the Windows Update tool for checking on all updates
C. It is the tool that must be run prior to installing IIS 5.0
D. It is the tool that checks the network configuration of all web servers
E. To record what Hotfixes and service packs are running on the Windows machine
Answer: E

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NO.5 You are creating the contingency plan for the network in hospital where you just
started working. The network has about 300 PCs, about 50 Servers, and is
interconnected into some of the critical patient systems for monitoring purposes.
What is the appropriate level of backup power for this type of network?
A. Building Generator
B. Personal UPS
C. Alternative Fuel-Cell Technology
D. Server Rack UPS
E. Electrical Company
Answer: A

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NO.6 You have recently hired an assistant to help you with managing the security of your
network. You are currently running an all Windows environment, and are
describing NTFS permission issues. You are using some demonstration files to help
with your discussion. You have two NTFS partitions, C:\ and D:\ There is a test file,
C:\DIR1\test.txt that is currently set so that only Administrators have Full Control.
If you move this file to the C:\DIR2 folder, what will the permissions be for this file?
A. The file will have the same permissions as D:\DIR2
B. The file permissions will remain the same
C. The file permissions will be lost
D. The file permissions will convert to Everyone - Full Control
E. The permissions will be set to whatever the CREATOR OWNER permissions are for
the D:\ partition
Answer: B

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NO.7 In Windows 2000, there are four methods of implementing IPSec. They are:
1. Require Security
2 - Request Security
3 - Respond Only
4 - No IPSec Policy
Your network hosts many servers, and different security policies are in place in
different locations in the network. The Clients and Servers in your network are
configured as follows:
-You have servers numbered 1-9, which have a policy stating they require no
network traffic security.
-You have servers numbered 10-19, which have a policy stating they are not
required to be secure, but will encrypt network traffic if the client is able to receive
it.
-You have servers numbered 20-29, which have a policy stating they are required to
be secure and all network traffic they deliver must be secured.
-You have clients numbered 60-79 that are required to access secure servers 20-29.
-You have clients numbered 80-99 that are not required to access secure servers
20-29, but are required to access servers 1-9 and 10-19.
Based on the Client and Server configuration provided above, which of the
following computers will implement IPSec method 2?
A. Computers numbered 1-9
B. Computers numbered 10-19
C. Computers numbered 20-29
D. Computers numbered 60-79
E. Computers numbered 80-99
Answer: B

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NO.8 In a TCP Header, what is the function of the first sixteen bits?
A. To define the type
B. To define the IP Version
C. To define the destination port number
D. To define the upper layer protocol
E. To define the source port number
Answer: E

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NO.9 In order to properly manage the network traffic in your organization, you need a
complete understanding of protocols and networking models. In regards to the
7-layer OSI model, what is the function of the Transport Layer?
A. The Transport layer allows two applications on different computers to establish, use,
and end a session. This layer establishes dialog control between the two computers in a
session, regulating which side transmits, plus when and how long it transmits.
B. The Transport layer manages logical addresses. It also determines the route from the
source to the destination computer and manages traffic problems, such as routing, and
controlling the congestion of data packets.
C. The Transport layer packages raw bits from the Physical (Layer 1) layer into frames
(structured packets for data). Physical addressing (as opposed to network or logical
addressing) defines how devices are addressed at the data link layer. This layer is
responsible for transferring frames from one computer to another, without errors. After
sending a frame, it waits for an acknowledgment from the receiving computer.
D. The Transport layer transmits bits from one computer to another and regulates the
transmission of a stream of bits over a physical medium. For example, this layer defines
how the cable is attached to the network adapter and what transmission technique is used
to send data over the cable.
E. The Transport layer handles error recognition and recovery. It also repackages long
messages, when necessary, into small packets for transmission and, at the receiving end,
rebuilds packets into the original message. The corresponding Transport layer at the
receiving end also sends receipt acknowledgments.
Answer: E

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NO.10 You are configuring the dial up options in your Windows 2000 network. While you
do so, you are studying the configuration options available to you. You notice the
term RADIUS used often during your research. What does RADIUS provide?
A. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of Kerberos in a network.
B. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of PKI in a network.
C. RADIUS is used to define the implementation method of Biometrics in a network.
D. RADIUS is a standard that provides authorization, authentication, identification, and
accounting services.
E. RADIUS is a standard that defines the methods used to secure the connections
between a dialup client and a dialup server.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following fields are found in a user account's line in the /etc/passwd
file?
A. The User Identifier assigned to the user account
B. The home directory used by the user account
C. The number of days since the user account password was changed
D. The full name for the user account
E. The number of days until the user account's password must change
Answer: ABD

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NO.12 Which of the following is implemented in an IPv6 environment, which helps to
increase security?
A. EFS
B. IPsec
C. Caching
D. S/MIME
E. Destination and Source Address Encryption
Answer: B

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NO.13 As you become more involved in the security and networking of your organization,
you wish to learn the exact details of the protocols in use. It is suggested to you, by a
friend, that you check the RFC for each protocol. What is an RFC?
A. An RFC is a program that has a searchable index to troubleshoot network problems.
B. An RFC is a document that discusses issues surrounding the Internet, networking
technologies, and/or networking protocols.
C. An RFC is a hidden resource, which can be called up via the Windows Help file to
identify details about networking protocols.
D. An RFC is a single document that details all the communications protocols and
technologies used on the Internet.
E. An RFC is a single document that details all the communications protocols and
technologies used on an Intranet.
Answer: B

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NO.14 You work for a mid sized ISP on the West Coast of the United Kingdom. Recently
you have noticed that there are an increasing number of attacks on the Internet
routers used in the company. The routers are physically secured well, so you can be
somewhat confident the attacks are all remote. Which of the following are legitimate
threats the routers are facing, under this situation?
A. Damaged Cables
B. False Data Injection
C. Social Engineering
D. Unauthorized Remote Access
E. Denial of Service
Answer: BDE

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NO.15 If you wish to change the permissions of a parent directory in your Linux system,
and want the permissions to be changed on the files and subdirectories in the parent
directory to be the same, what switch must you use?
A. -G
B. -R
C. -P
D. -S
E. -F
Answer: B

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NO.16 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Ethereal capture tool on
a Windows 2000 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

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NO.17 You are configuring a wildcard mask for the subnet 10.12.24.0 / 255.255.248.0.
Which of the following is the wildcard mask to use for this subnet?
A. 0.255.255.255
B. 10.12.24.255
C. 0.0.248.0
D. 255.255.248.0
E. 0.0.7.255
Answer: E

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NO.18 In your network, you manage a mixed environment of Windows, Linux, and UNIX
computers. The clients run Windows 2000 Professional and Windows NT 4.0
Workstation, while the Servers are UNIX and Linux based with custom
applications. During routine administration you successfully ping several nodes in
the network. During this you are running a packet capture for further analysis.
When examining one of the frames you notice that the Ethernet address for the
source is 1ED0.097E.E5E9 and that for the destination is 1ED0.096F.5B13. From
this information you gather that:
A. They are in different networks
B. The destination address is in the 1ED0 subnet
C. The network cards are by the same manufacturer
D. The destination address is in the 1ED0.09AA subnet
E. The source and destination share the same MAC subnet
Answer: C

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NO.19 You are configuring the IP addressing for your network. One of the subnets has
been defined with addresses already. You run ifconfig on a host and determine that
it has an address of 172.18.32.54 with a mask of 255.255.254.0. What is the network
ID to which this host belongs?
A. 172.18.0.0
B. 0.0.32.0
C. 172.0.0.0
D. 172.18.32.32
E. 172.18.32.0
Answer: E

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NO.20 One way to find out more about a company's infrastructure layout is to send email
to a non-existent user of the target organization. When this email bounces back as
undeliverable, you can read the message source. Which of the following pieces of
information can be derived from the returned message source?
A. Target company's email server's hostname.
B. Target company's email server's public IP address.
C. Target company's internal IP addressing scheme.
D. Target company's email server's application name and version, if provided.
E. Target company's employees' email addresses.
Answer: ABD

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NO.21 If you are looking for plain-text ASCII characters in the payload of a packet you
capture using Network Monitor, which Pane will provide you this information?
A. Summary Pane
B. Packet Pane
C. Collection Pane
D. Hex Pane
E. Detail Pane
Answer: D

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NO.22 You are creating the contingency plan, and are trying to take into consideration as
many of the disasters as you can think of. Which of the following are examples of
technological disasters?
A. Hurricane
B. Terrorism
C. Tornado
D. Virus
E. Trojan Horse
Answer: BDE

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NO.23 When a new user account is created in Linux, what values are assigned?
A. Shell_GID
B. SetGID
C. SetUID
D. UID
E. GID
Answer: DE

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NO.24 The exhibit shows a router with three interfaces E0, E1 and S0. Interfaces E0 and
E1 are connected to internal networks 192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 respectively
and interface S0 is connected to the Internet.
The objective is to allow two hosts, 192.168.20.16 and 192.168.10.7 access to the
Internet while all other hosts are to be denied Internet access. All hosts on network
192.168.10.0 and 192.168.20.0 must be allowed to access resources on both internal
networks. From the following, select all the access list statements that are required
to make this possible.
A. access-list 53 permit 192.168.20.16 0.0.0.0
B. access-list 80 permit 192.168.20.16 0.0.0.0
C. access-list 53 deny 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
D. access-list 80 permit 192.168.10.7 0.0.0.0
E. int S0, ip access-group 53 out
F. int S0, ip access-group 80 out
Answer: BDF

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NO.25 You are in the process of securing several new machines on your Windows 2000
network. To help with the process Microsoft has defined a set of Security Templates
to use in various situations. Which of the following best describes the Basic Security
Template?
A. This template is provided as a way to reverse the implementation of different
Windows 2000 security settings, except for user rights.
B. This template is provided so that Local Users have ideal security settings, while Power
Users have settings that are compatible with NT 4 Users.
C. This template is provided to implement suggested security settings for all security
areas, except for the following: files, folders, and Registry keys.
D. This template is provided to create the maximum level of security for network traffic
between Windows 2000 clients.
E. This template is provided to allow for an administrator to run legacy applications on a
DC.
Answer: A

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NO.26 You have recently installed an Apache Web server on a Red Hat Linux machine.
When you return from lunch, you find that a colleague has made a few
configuration changes. One thing you notice is a .htpasswd file. What is the function
of this file?
A. It is a copy of the /etc/passwd file for Web access
B. It is a copy of the etc/shadow file for Web access
C. It is a listing of all anonymous users to the Web server
D. It is a listing of http users and passwords for authentication
E. It is a database file that can be pulled remotely via a web interface to identify currently
logged in users.
Answer: D

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NO.27 You wish to add a new group to your Linux system. The group is called
SCNP_Admins, and is to be given a Group Identifier of 1024. What is the correct
command to add this new group?
A. addgroup SCNP_Admins -id 1024
B. groupadd -g 1024 SCNP_Admins
C. addgroup SCNP_Admins id/1024
D. groupadd id/1024 g/SCNP_Admins
E. groupadd g/1024 SCNP_Admins
Answer: B

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NO.28 You are configuring the Access Lists for your new Cisco Router. The following are
the commands that are entered into the router for the list configuration.
Router(config)#access-list 145 deny tcp any 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 80
Router(config)#access-list 145 deny tcp any 10.10.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 119
Router(config)#access-list 145 permit ip any any
Router(config)#interface Serial 0
Router(config-if)#ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 0
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 1
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Router(config-if)#interface Ethernet 2
Router(config-if)# ip access-group 145 in
Based on this configuration, and using the exhibit, select the answers that identify
what the list will accomplish.
A. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on the Internet
B. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on network 10.10.11.0
C. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access NNTP on network 10.10.12.0
D. Deny network 10.10.10.0 to access Internet WWW sites
E. Permit network 10.10.10.0 to access Internet WWW sites
Answer: AE

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NO.29 In the last few days, users have reported to you that they have each received two
emails from an unknown source with file attachments. Fortunately the users have
listened to your training and no one has run the attached program. You study the
attachment on an isolated computer and find that it is a program that is designed to
execute a payload when the system clock registers 10:10 PM on February 29. Which
of the following best identifies the type of program is the attachment?
A. Mail Bomb
B. Logic Bomb
C. Polymorphic Virus
D. Stealth Virus
E. Polymorphic Trojan
Answer: B

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NO.30 In order to add to your layered defense, you wish to implement some security
configurations on your router. If you wish to have the router work on blocking TCP
SYN attacks, what do you add to the end of an ACL statement?
A. The IP addresses for allowed networks
B. The port range of allowed applications
C. The word Established
D. The word Log
E. The string: no service udp-small-servers
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: SC0-402
시험 이름: SCP (Network Defense and Countermeasures (NDC))
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Q&A: 275 문항
업데이트: 2013-11-28

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NO.1 Signatures are generally divided into what three categories?
A. Corruptions
B. Exploits
C. Accesses
D. DoS attacks
E. Reconnaissance
Answer: BDE

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NO.2 Which of the following best describes the Insurance Model?
A. Before incurring the cost for insuring an inoperative asset, check for maintenance agreements that may
include the cost of
insurance itself.
B. The insurance model is the transference of risk to an insurance company that covers the costs of
replacing the critical assets within
your network. The drawbacks are increase in premiums after making a claim, high premiums anyway,
down time while the
insurance company is processing the claim, and claim may not pay what replacement costs are today.
C. The insurance model makes use of preventive measures and regular service as well as updates such
as
Service Packs, maintenance
updates, and patches. Preventive measures can also improve the chances of the insurance model
working
better than if the system
had no preventive measures ever taken.
D. The insurance model makes use of the acknowledged skills and abilities of the existing personnel.
Knowing that assets have very
specific dollar values assigned to them, the choice on how to manage the asset is based on the
experience
of the personnel.
E. Assets will typically cost much more than the original capital outlay that it took to purchase it long ago.
Insurance costs can be
very high and a decision to exercise this model should not be made in haste. There are also depreciation
issues to deal with as well.
Answer: B

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NO.3 During a discussion of asset classification and protection with a coworker, you realize that your
coworker does not know the basic concepts of asset protection. You are asked to describe the types of
asset protection. Which of the following describes the concept of feasible protection of an asset?
A. The cost to replace the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
B. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of protect the asset
C. The cost to protect the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset.
D. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
E. The cost to protect the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset.
Answer: E

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NO.4 You are the firewall administrator at your company and the network administrators have decided to
implement a PPTP VPN solution, which of these ports would you need to allow through the firewall
to allow these VPN sessions into your network?
A. 1723
B. 2317
C. 1273
D. 1372
E. 7132
Answer: A

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NO.5 During a discussion of asset classification and protection with a coworker, you realize that your
coworker does not know the basic concepts of asset protection. You are asked to describe the types of
asset protection. Which of the following describes the concept of an infeasible protection of an asset?
A. The cost to protect the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
B. The cost to replace the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
C. the cost to protect the asset is infeasible to determine
D. The cost to replace the asset is greater than the cost of recovery of the asset
E. The cost to protect the asset is less than the cost of recovery of the asset
Answer: A

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NO.6 Your company has decided to allow certain people to work from home. The work that they do does
not require that they be in the office for anything more than meetings and they already have
personal high-speed DSL connections at their homes. You have been given the task of figuring out
how to get your coworkers to connect to your company's network securely and reliably. What
technology can you use to solve your problem most effectively?
A. Dedicated Leased Lines (ISDN or T1)
B. Dial-Up via PSTN lines.
C. VPN
D. Firewall
E. IDS
Answer: C

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NO.7 It has come to your attention that some host on the web has tried to do some reconnaissance on your
network and send a VRFY command to try and steal user names. What type of attack was used
against your network?
A. SMTP attack
B. Web browser attack
C. IMAP attack
D. IP Spoofing
E. Account scan
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following best describes the Repair Model?
A. The model makes use of preventive measures and regular service as well as updates such as Service
Packs, maintenance updates,
and patches. Preventive measures can also improve the chances of the repair model working better than
if
the system had no
preventive measures ever taken.
B. The repair model is the transference of risk to an insurance company that covers the costs of replacing
the critical assets within
your network. The drawbacks are increase in premiums after making a claim, high premiums anyway,
down time while the
insurance company is processing the claim, and claim may not pay what replacement costs are today.
C. Assets will typically cost much more than the original capital outlay that it took to purchase it long ago.
Repair costs can be very
high and a decision to exercise this model should not be made in haste. There are also depreciation
issues
to deal with as well. In
any case, this model should be the last resort because of cost and may be the most time consuming.
D. The repair model makes use of the acknowledged skills and abilities of the existing personnel.
Knowing that assets have very
specific dollar values assigned to them, the choice on how to manage the asset is based on the
experience
of the personnel.
E. Before incurring the cost for repair of an inoperative asset, check for maintenance agreements that
may
include the cost of repair
or the actual repair itself. Nevertheless, the repair model should focus on the restoration of the downed
asset to its working status
within the network infrastructure. Keep in mind that after hardware costs, costs for the reloading or
replacement of software can
be a large cost factor as well.
Answer: E

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NO.9 You are the firewall administrator at your company and the network administrators have
decided to implement a VPN solution that will use L2TP. Which port or ports would you
need to allow through the firewall to allow the L2TP traffic to reach the VPN server
inside your network from a remote client?
A. TCP 1723
B. UDP 47
C. UDP 1701
D. TCP 443
E. UDP 500
Answer: C

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NO.10 You have been hired at a large company to manage the network security issues. Prior to your
arrival, there was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a
meeting and are discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of your
assistants asks what the function of Authentication in network security is. Which of the following
best describes Authentication?
A. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected for privacy and Authentication.
Authentication ensures the privacy of
data on the network system.
B. Authentication is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information
stored within network systems.
Upon receiving the email or data communication, authentication must be verified to ensure that the
message has not been altered,
modified, or added to or subtracted from in transit by unauthorized users.
C. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
D. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation
after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes authentication for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the
transaction.
E. Authentication verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, authenticating the
sender is necessary to verify
that the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is
going to the right
destination.
Answer: E

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NO.11 The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network
as soon as possible. You have chosen an Operational Audit and are describing it to your coworkers.
Which of the following best describes an Operational audit?
A. This type of audit is typically done by a contracted external team of security experts who check for
policy compliance.
B. This type of audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going
activities within a network
system for compliance with an established security policy.
C. This type of audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up to
international standards.
D. This type of audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security
measures are up to international
standards.
E. This type of audit is usually conducted by external resources and may be a review or audit of detailed
audit logs.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following best describes the Total Replacement Model?
A. The total replacement model makes use of the acknowledged skills and abilities of the existing
personnel. Knowing that assets
have very specific dollar values assigned to them, the choice on how to manage the asset is based on the
experience of the
personnel.
B. Before incurring the cost for replacing of an inoperative asset, check for maintenance agreements that
may include the cost of
repair or the actual repair itself. Nevertheless, the total replacement model should focus on the repairing
of
the downed asset to its
working status within the network infrastructure. Keep in mind that after hardware costs, costs for the
reloading or replacement of
software can be a large cost factor as well.
C. Assets will typically cost much more than the original capital outlay that it took to purchase it long ago.
Replacement costs can be
very high and a decision to exercise this model should not be made in haste. There are also depreciation
issues to deal with as well.
In any case, this model should be the last resort because of cost and may be the most time consuming.
D. The total replacement model is the transference of risk to an insurance company that covers the costs
of
replacing the critical
assets within your network. The drawbacks are increase in premiums after making a claim, high
premiums
anyway, down time
while the insurance company is processing the claim, and claim may not pay what replacement costs are
today.
E. The total replacement model makes use of preventive measures and regular service as well as
updates
such as Service Packs,
maintenance updates, and patches, before deciding to replace the asset. Preventive measures can also
improve the chances of the
replacement model working better than if the system had no preventive measures ever taken.
Answer: C

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NO.13 What technology is being employed to resist SYN floods by having each side of the connection
attempt create its own sequence number (This sequence number contains a synopsis of the
connection so that if/when the connection attempt is finalized the fist part of the attempt can be
re-created from the sequence number)?
A. SYN cookie
B. SYN floodgate
C. SYN gate
D. SYN damn
E. SYN flood break
Answer: A

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NO.14 You are the firewall administrator for your company and you have just learned that the
Server administrators are gearing up support an L2TP based VPN solution. You are told
to be sure that your firewall rule sets will not hinder the performance of the VPN. Which
of the following ports will you have to allow through the firewall?
A. TCP 1701
B. UDP 1701
C. TCP 443
D. UDP 443
E. TCP1601
Answer: B

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NO.15 You have been hired at a large company to manage network security. Prior to your arrival, there
was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a meeting and are
discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of your assistants asks what the
function of Confidentiality in network security is. Which of the following best describes
Confidentiality?
A. Confidentiality verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, authenticating the
sender is necessary to verify
that the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is
going to the right
destination.
B. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected in order to maintain appropriate levels of
privacy and confidentiality.
Network security must provide a secure channel for the transmission of data and email that does not allow
eavesdropping by
unauthorized users. Data confidentiality ensures the privacy of data on the network system.
C. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
D. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation
after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes Confidentiality for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the
transaction.
E. Confidentiality is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information
stored within network systems.
Data must be kept from unauthorized modification, forgery, or any other form of corruption either from
malicious threats or
corruption that is accidental in nature.
Answer: B

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NO.16 You were recently hired as the security administrator of a small business. You are
reviewing the current state of security in the network and find that the current logging
system must be immediately modified. As the system is currently configured, auditing
has no practical value. Which of the following are the reasons that the current auditing
has little value?
A. The logs go unchecked.
B. The logs are automatically deleted after three months.
C. The logs are deleted using FIFO and capped at 500Kb.
D. The only auditing is successful file access events.
E. The logs are deleted using FIFO and capped at 5000Kb.
Answer: AD

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NO.17 You have been hired at a large company to manage network. Prior to your arrival, there
was no one dedicated to security, so you are starting at the beginning. You hold a
meeting and are discussing the main functions and features of network security. One of
your assistants asks what the function of Integrity in network security is. Which of the
following best describes Integrity?
A. The security must limit user privileges to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to sensitive
information and areas of the
network that only authorized users should only be allowed to access.
B. Integrity verifies users to be who they say they are. In data communications, the integrity of the sender
is necessary to verify that
the data came from the right source. The receiver is authenticated as well to verify that the data is going
to
the right destination.
C. Data communications as well as emails need to be protected for privacy and Integrity. Integrity ensures
the privacy of data on the
network system.
D. Integrity is a security principle that ensures the continuous accuracy of data and information stored
within network systems. Data
must be kept from unauthorized modification, forgery, or any other form of corruption either from
malicious threats or corruption
that is accidental in nature. Upon receiving the email or data communication, integrity must be verified to
ensure that the message
has not been altered, modified, or added to or subtracted from in transit by unauthorized users.
E. Security must be established to prevent parties in a data transaction from denying their participation
after the business transaction
has occurred. This establishes integrity for the transaction itself for all parties involved in the transaction.
Answer: D

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NO.18 The main reason you have been hired at a company is to bring the network security of the
organization up to current standards. A high priority is to have a full security audit of the network
as soon as possible. You have chosen an Independent Audit and are describing it to your coworkers.
Which of the following best describes an Independent Audit?
A. An independent audit is usually conducted by external or outside resources and may be a review or
audit of detailed audit logs.
B. The independent audit is usually done by the current network administrators who ensure the security
measures are up to
international standards.
C. The independent audit is typically done by an internal team who ensures the security measures are up
to
international standards.
D. The independent audit is usually done by internal resources to examine the current daily and on-going
activities within a network
system for compliance with an established security policy.
E. The independent audit is typically done by a contracted outside team of security experts who check for
policy compliance.
Answer: A

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NO.19 You are considering adding layers to your existing authentication system. Reading through some of
the vendor literature on logon solutions, it frequently mentions two and three factor authentication.
Your assistant asks you to describe the difference between the two. Select the options that correctly
describe two-factor and three-factor authentication:
A. Two-factor authentication is the process providing something you have along with something you
know.
B. Two-factor authentication is the process of providing two forms of authentication, such as a username
and a password.
C. Two-factor authentication is the process of authenticating twice during the login sequence to verify user
identity.
D. Three-factor authentication is the process of providing something you have along with something you
know and something you are.
E. Three-factor authentication is the process of providing three forms of authentication, such as
username,
password, and sitting at
the physical machine to login.
F. Three-factor authentication is the process of authenticating three times during the login sequence to
verify user identity.
Answer: AD

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NO.20 Your company has decided to allow certain people to work from home. The work that
they do, does not require that they be in the office for anything more than meetings. In
addition, they already have high-speed DSL connections at their homes for personal use.
You have been given the task of figuring out how to get your coworkers to connect to
your company's network securely and reliably. What technology can you use to solve
your problem most effectively?
A. Dedicated Leased Lines (ISDN or T1)
B. Dial-Up via PSTN lines.
C. VPN
D. IPChains
E. IDS
Answer: C

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업데이트: 2013-11-28

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NO.1 Gina is the project manager for her organization and she is working with her project team to define the
project activities. In this project, the stakeholders are sensitive to the project completion date,
so Gina is stressing to her project team members that while they need to provide and account for all of the
project activities, they should focus on one work package in the WBS at a time. In order to start the
decomposition of the project work packages into activities, Gina will need all of the following except for
which one?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. WBS
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are the project manager of the NHQ Project. You have created the project network diagram as
shown in the figure:
You are concerned about a risk on Activity G that if it happens will delay the project by four days.
You would like to utilize float for Activity G. How much float is available for Activity G to help offset the risk
event?
A. Five days
B. Four days
C. Eleven days
D. Zero
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are the project manager of the NHA Project. This project is expected to last one year with quarterly
milestones throughout the year. Your project is supposed to be at the third milestone today but you're
likely only 60 percent complete. Your project has a BAC of $745,000 and you've spent $440,000 of the
budget-to-date. What is your schedule performance index for this project?
A. 80
B. 1.02
C. 102
D. 0.80
Answer: D

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NO.4 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
The __________ includes a description of any collateral services required, such as performancereporting
or post-project operational support for the procured item.
Answer: procurement SOW

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NO.5 Ben is the project manager for his organization. His project has 26 stakeholders this week and will
have five additional stakeholders next week. How many more communication channels will Ben's project
have next week?
A. 140
B. 10
C. 325
D. 5
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are the project manager for your organization. You have recorded the following duration estimates
for an activity in your project: optimistic 20, most likely 45, pessimistic 90. What time will you record for
this activity?
A. 48
B. 20o, 45m, 90p
C. 90
D. 45
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are the project manager of the GHY Project. Management wants you to create a process
improvement plan for your project. Your project will be studied by management and will become a
standard for all future organizational projects based on your project's performance, approach, and
implementation of project processes. All of the following should be included in your project's process
improvement plan except for which one?
A. Process boundaries
B. Process configuration
C. Targets for improved performance
D. Identification of project risks
Answer: D

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NO.8 The Define Activities process is the first process in the project time management knowledge are a.
The Define Activities process creates just three outputs as a result of decomposition, rolling wave
planning, templates, and expert judgment. Which one of the following is not an output of the Define
Activities process?
A. Activity list
B. Milestone list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project document updates
Answer: D

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NO.9 Sam is the project manager of the NQQ project. He and the project team have completed the
stakeholder identification process for his project. What is the main output of the identify stakeholders
process?
A. Communications management plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Requirements
D. Stakeholder management strategy
Answer: B

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NO.10 George is the project manager of the NHQ Project and has a budget of $778,000. The project is
scheduled to last for one year with an equal amount of work completed each quarter. The second quarter
of the project has ended and George has spent $325,000 but has only finished forty percent of the project.
Management needs a variance report for the project schedule. What value should George report in this
instance?
A. .96
B. -$77,800
C. $-34,500
D. -$13,800
Answer: B

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NO.11 Your project team is executing the project plan and things are going well. Your team has reached
its first milestone and is now in the second phase of the project. The project stakeholders have requested
that you find a method to reduce the duration of the project. They will reward you and your project team
with a 25 percent bonus of the project costs if you can finish the project thirty days earlier than what was
already planned. The stakeholders, however, will not approve any additional labor costs as part of the
agreement. Which approach could you use to shorten the duration of the project?
A. Perform resource leveling for the project.
B. Crash the project schedule.
C. Fast track the project.
D. Remove things from the project scope.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following scheduling techniques identifies the successor activities and the
predecessor activities to assist the project manager in sequencing the project work?
A. Precedence Diagramming Method
B. Schedule network template
C. Dependency determination
D. Activity on the Node
Answer: A

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NO.13 Mark is the project manager of the GHQ Project. He is happily reporting that his project has a schedule
performance index of 2.12. Management, however, does not think this is good news.
What is the most likely reason why management does not like an SPI of 2.12?
A. It is not good news because a larger number means the schedule duration estimates were likely to be
wrong to begin with.
B. They likely do not understand the SPI formula.
C. It is not good news, as the number should be closer to 100 than 0.
D. It is good news, but Mark may have large cost variances to achieve this value.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Andy works as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. He is developing the schedule for the project.
There are eight tools and techniques that a project manager can use to develop the project schedule.
Which of the following is a tool and technique for the Schedule Development process?
A. Schedule compression
B. Reserve analysis
C. Variance analysis
D. Expert judgment
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which one of the following estimate types is a form of expert judgment?
A. Parametric estimate
B. Analogous estimate
C. Bottom-up estimate
D. Definitive estimate
Answer: B

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NO.16 Beth is the project manager for her organization. Her current project has many deliverables that have
been defined at a high level, but the details of the deliverables are still unknown. In her project, Beth is
planning in detail only the activities that are most imminent in the project work. This approach to project
management planning is known as what?
A. Imminent activity management
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Predecessor-only diagramming
D. Decomposition
Answer: B

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NO.17 You are the project manager for your organization. You need the oak cabinets for your project
delivered by December 1 in order to install the floors around the oak cabinets by December 15.
Your company's procurement office generally takes 45 days to complete procurement orders. Based on
this information, how should you schedule the lead time for the cabinet delivery?
A. Cabinet procurement December 1, plus 45 days lead time
B. Cabinet procurement November 15
C. Cabinet procurement December 1, minus 45 dayslead time
D. Cabinet procurement December 15 minus 45 dayslead time
Answer: C

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NO.18 You are the project manager of the GHT Project. Ben, one of your project team members, does not
understand the idea of a milestone. Which of the following best describes what a milestone is?
A. A significant point in the project
B. A goal of reaching a significant delivery of project benefits by an identified date
C. An imposed date for the project to reach a given point
D. The completion of a project activity that is crucial to project completion
Answer: A

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NO.19 You are the project manager for your company. You are working with the activities defined in the figure
below.
What will happen to your project if Activity F takes five additional days to complete than what was
expected?
A. Your project's critical path will shift to ACFI.
B. Your project will be late by five days.
C. Your project can still complete on time as float is available onActivity I.
D. Your project will now have two critical paths.
Answer: B

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NO.20 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Management has asked you not to communicate
performance unless the CPI is less than 0.96 or the SPI dips below 0.98. What type of report would you
create for management, if these instances develop in your project?
A. Cost variance report
B. Exceptions report
C. Performance management report
D. Schedule variance report
Answer: B

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NO.21 Examine the figure given below:
If Activity B takes eight days to complete instead of five days as schedule, how long can you now delay
Activity H?
A. Three days
B. One day
C. Four days
D. Zero days
Answer: B

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NO.22 You are the project manager of the BHG Project. You are creating a network diagram as shown in the
figure:
Mary, a project team member, reports that an identified risk is likely to happen in the project that will affect
the completion date of Activity D . She reports that the risk event will likely cause the duration of the
activity to increase by six days. If this happens what is the earliest the project can complete?
A. 32 days
B. 29 days
C. 27 days
D. 26 days
Answer: D

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NO.23 You have created the project network diagram for the ABC project. You are exploring total float and
free float for that project. Martin, a project team member, wants to know the difference between total float
and free float. What is the difference between total float and free float?
A. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any project
successors, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the
project completion date.
B. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project
completiondate, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any
project successors.
C. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project
completiondate, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any
project predecessors.
D. Total float is the amount of time a non-critical activity can be delayed without delaying any project
successors, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the
project completion date.
Answer: B

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NO.24 Once the project's WBS has been created what process may happen next?
A. Estimate activity resources
B. Define activities
C. Estimate activity durations
D. Sequence activities
Answer: B

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NO.25 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. When activities are logically linked, they become the
__________
Answer: Schedule.

NO.26 You are the project manager of the NHQ Project. Management has set a conformance to the project
schedule for your project at 0.95. What does this term mean?
A. It means the largest schedule variance you can have is five percent.
B. It is the earned value divided by the planned value for your project.
C. It is the expectation of management to be 95 on schedule at 95 percent of the project.
D. It means you will need to earn at least 95 cents per dollar invested in the project.
Answer: A

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NO.27 You are the project manager of the HQQ Project. Your project is running late by ten percent of where
you should be at this time. Management is concerned. Considering that the project has a BAC of
$567,899, you are thirty percent complete, and you have spent $179,450. What is this project's
to-complete performance index based on the current BAC?
A. 1.02
B. 0.010
C. 0.75
D. 0.95
Answer: A

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NO.28 You are the project manager of the NHGQ project for your company. You must create and distribute
performance reports every week to your key project stakeholders. What communication technique do you
normally use to distribute reports?
A. Push technique
B. Many-to-many
C. One-to-one
D. Pull technique
Answer: A

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NO.29 John works as a project manager of the NHQ Project. He has created the project network diagram as
shown in the figure:
Based on the project network diagram, how much float is available for Activity H if Activity B is delayed by
four days and Activity E is delayed by two days?
A. Zero
B. One
C. Four
D. Five
Answer: A

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NO.30 Your project has a BAC of $750,000 and is 75 percent complete. According to your plan, however, your
project should actually be 80 percent complete. You have spent $575,000 of your project budget to reach
this point and you are worried about the project not being able to complete based on your current project
budget. What is the to-complete performance index for this project?
A. 0.98
B. -$16,677
C. 1.07
D. 0.94
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: A10
시험 이름: CIPS (Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply)
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Q&A: 142 문항
업데이트: 2013-11-28

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NO.1 Advanced Certificate in Purchasing and Supply
Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply
A10
Senior Assessor's Report
INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES
The senior assessor??s report is written in order to provide candidates with feedback relating to
the examination. It is designed as a tool for candidates ?¡ìC both those who have sat the
examination and those who wish to use as part of their revision for future examinations.
Candidates are advised to refer to the Examination Techniques Guide (see the following link
http://www.cips.org/documents/ExaminationtechniquesguideFeb07.pdf) as well as this senior
assessor??s report.
The senior assessor??s report aims to provide the following information:
* An indication of how to approach the examination question
* An indication of the points the answer should include and how marks are allocated
* An indication of candidate performance for the examination question
APPENDIX
A syllabus matrix for the examination is included as an appendix. It highlights the learning
objectives of the syllabus unit content that each question is testing.
The unit content guides are available to download at the following link:
http://www.cips.org/studyqualify/cipsqualifications/syllabuses/
ADDITIONAL SOURCES OF INFORMATION
The Supply Management magazine is a useful source of information and candidates are advised
to include it in their reading during their study. Please see the following link to the Supply
Management website http://www.supplymanagement.com/
Analysis of Section A
Many candidates achieved moderate marks for this section. There were a few quite low scores
and very few high scores for this section, some candidates gaining 20/20 marks. Section A
questions are designed to test the candidates?? understanding of key purchasing principles and
knowledge of the syllabus.
I recommend that candidates practise questions from past papers in order to improve their
performance on this section ?¡ìC it is vital to be able to make the right decision from the four
available options, without spending too much time on the question.
SECTION B
Analysis of Section A
Many candidates achieved moderate marks for this section. There were a few quite low scores
and very few high scores for this section, some candidates gaining 20/20 marks. Section A
questions are designed to test the candidates?? understanding of key purchasing principles and
knowledge of the syllabus.
I recommend that candidates practise questions from past papers in order to improve their
performance on this section ?¡ìC it is vital to be able to make the right decision from the four
available options, without spending too much time on the question.
SECTION B
Question 11
Answer should identify FIVE of the following key points (1 mark was allocated for each correct
point) - initial briefing regarding performance areas, identification of what the organisation requires
from the employee, highlighting of any problems, is performance on track?, feedback during the
meeting, can the employer provide any assistance and have any training needs been identified.
The qualities of responses to this question were quite high and many candidates scored a good
level of marks.
Question 12
Candidates were required to LIST any FIVE of the following - increased leverage, ease of control
of fewer suppliers, greater opportunities of negotiation, increased joint development potential,
value adding initiatives may be explored, more use of supplier agreements, less transactional
activity, more use of strategic procurement.
The majority of candidates answered this question very well, with strong responses giving four or
five correct points. Weaker answers gave incorrect examples of the benefits of reducing the total
number of suppliers.
Question 13
Candidates were required to explain TWO ways in which purchasers could achieve continuous
professional development. Candidates should recognise that 2 ? marks are available for the
explanation of each 'way'. This breaks down as 1 mark available for identification of each method
with up to a further 1? marks available for the explanation of how the method used would benefit
the purchaser (or their employer). Areas that answers could include were: own study, attendance
at professional association meetings, attendance on courses/distance learning, formal training,
site visits, job rotation, or academic achievement.
The overall approach to this question could have been better. This is a key section within the
learning outcomes of this unit and many candidates performed poorly and identified areas that
were irrelevant to the context of the question. A few strong answers managed to correctly identify
two ways and briefly explained the value of the concept, in the context of purchaser's professional
development.
Question 14
Part (a) asked for THREE correctly titled key performance indicators (KPIs), for example, stockturns,
service levels, stock damage, stock accuracy, accuracy of pick rates (1 mark for each
appropriate KPI, up to 3 marks). Part (b) required candidates to explain how the use of KPIs can
improve the management of stock.
Many candidates gave incorrect KPIs for part (a), or failed to list insufficient KPIs. Many poor
answers focused on efficiency and effectiveness, rather than actually identify a KPI measure.
Following on from this part (b) was poorly answered as a result of the candidate failing to
understand the context of the question. This is a key part of the unit content and it is important that
candidates address this syllabus topic.
Question 15
Benchmarking is a key concept and allows buyers to assess the suitability or performance of a
supplier when compared to a known standard.
Part (a) required candidates to describe the purpose of supplier benchmarking. Benchmarking
provides information which may be used to select the correct supplier or motivate a potential
supplier to improve its products or overall performance.
Part (b) required candidates to list two problems that can be encountered with benchmarking.
There were many weak answers to this question and this may suggest a knowledge gap in the
candidates who sat this paper. Many responses gave a poor or inappropriate response to part (a)
and incorrect examples for part (b). Some answers gained marks for part (b) but were awarded no
marks for an incorrect answer to part (a).
Question 16
Candidates were required to explain TWO measurements that contribute to a simple vendor
measurement system. Examples that could have been explained are: quality ?¡ìC quantity of
acceptable deliveries as a percentage, deliveries ?¡ìC percentage of accurate on-time deliveries,
after sales service ?¡ìC response time set against an agreed target
Many candidates scored highly on this question by correctly identifying two measures and then
giving an appropriate explanation. A few candidates gave inappropriate answers or failed to
adequately explain what the measure was.
Topic 4, E
E

CIPS   A10 pdf   A10   A10   A10

NO.2 Q3. Which one of the following performance indicators is best used to assess whether there are
slow moving stock items in a store?
A. Total number of items held
B. Average number of stock issues over a period
C. Total value of stock held
D. Average number of deliveries received
Topic 3, A
A

CIPS   A10 pdf   A10   A10   A10

NO.3 THE CHARTERED INSTITUTE OF PURCHASING &SUPPLY
ADVANCED CERTIFICATE IN PURCHASING AND SUPPLY
Measuring Performance in Purchasing and Supply Management
A10
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES
*Ensure that you have been handed the correct examination paper.
*Ensure that you have been handed the correct examination paper.
*SECTION B: Questions 11?¡ìC16 are worth 5 marks each. You are advised to spend
approximately 50 minutes on this section.
*SECTION C: Questions 17?¡ìC19 require full answers with examples where appropriate.
Question 17 is worth 20 marks. Questions 18 and 19 are worth 15 marks each. You are advised to
spend a minimum of half an hour on each question.
*Answers should be written in this answer booklet in the spaces provided. If you require
continuation paper you should request this from the invigilator. Your candidate number and
question number must be clearly marked on each sheet of continuation paper.
*All answers must be written in ink. Pencil should only be used where graphs/diagrams are
required. Cross out any work which you do not wish to be examined.
*Rough working must be shown, and crossed out.
*The use of silent, battery-operated, non-programmable calculators is permitted.

CIPS   A10 pdf   A10   A10   A10

NO.4 CORRECT TEXT
Q16. Identify FIVE areas that should be covered when appraising the buyer's performance.
Topic 1, D
D

CIPS   A10 pdf   A10   A10   A10

NO.5 Q6. Which of the following tools of analysis can be used to classify stock?
A. Value chain analysis
B. ABC analysis
C. SMART analysis
D. Quantum analysis
Topic 1, D
D
NO: 8 CORRECT TEXT
Q17. An organisation wishes to review its procurement processes to try and achieve
operational benefits.
You have been asked by the senior materials manager to advise on how the
process should proceed, as follows:
(a) List THREE key tasks where buyers' performance is directly linked to the
objectives of supply management.
(b) For each of the three key tasks, give an example of how the purchaser??s
performance could be measured.
(c) Explain how a review of these key tasks could benefit an organisation.
Topic 5, B
B
9.
Q2. Which of the following is Pareto's Law?
A. The law of supply and demand
B. The law of vendor rating
C. The 80/20 rule
D. The 90/30 rule
10.
Q3. Which one of the following is a recognised measure of financial performance?
A. Stock exchange viability test
B. CLIP performance
C. Net profit before tax
D. Sales analysis

CIPS   A10 pdf   A10   A10   A10

NO.6 Topic 1, D
D
1. CORRECT TEXT
Q11. Identify the FIVE stages that should be followed to ensure an effective staff appraisal.
Topic 2, F
F

CIPS   A10 pdf   A10   A10   A10

NO.7 CORRECT TEXT
Q17. Microfast Foods is concerned about the cost of holding large quantities of stocks for its food
processing operation, in particular the issue of the high cost of perishable ingredients and
'waste'. The company has no formal procedure for tracking levels and usage of inventory
within its stores. The managing director of Microfast has asked you to advise him as follows:
a) Briefly explain to the managing director why it is important to continually review and
measure inventory levels.
b) Within the stores and warehouse environment there are THREE factors that need to be
examined ?¡ìC Economy, Efficiency and Effectiveness ?¡ìC in relation to performance
measures. The managing director is unsure of the detail. Provide a brief explanation of
each in the context of this business.

CIPS   A10 pdf   A10   A10   A10

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시험 번호/코드: ZF-100-500
시험 이름: Zend-Technologies (Zend Framework Certification)
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일년동안 무료 업데이트
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100% 합격율 보장
Q&A: 200 문항
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NO.1 $index->addDocument($Search_Doc);
A. $Search_Index = Zend_Search_Lucene::create_Index('/data/my-index');
$Search_Doc = new Zend_Search_Lucene_Document();
B. $Search_Index = Zend_Search_Lucene::open_Index('/data/my-index');
$Search_Doc = new Zend_Search_Lucene_Document();
C. $Search_Index = Zend_Search_Lucene::create('/data/my-index');
$Search_Doc = new Zend_Search_Lucene_Document();
D. $Search_Index = Zend_Search_Lucene::open('/data/my-index');
$Search_Doc = new Zend_Search_Lucene_Document();
Answer: C

Zend-Technologies시험문제   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500
11.Which of the following methods in Zend_Controller_Action can be used for resetting the state when
multiple controllers use the same helper in the chained actions?
A. preDispatch()
B. setActionController()
C. postDispatch()
D. init()
Answer: D

Zend-Technologies   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500자격증   ZF-100-500

NO.2 Which of the following code snippets will you use if you want to connect to a Pop3 server using TLS?
A. <?php
$mail = new Zend_Mail_Storage_Pop3(array('host'
='example.com', 'user' ='user_name',
'protocol_used' = 'tls')); ?>
B. <?php
$mail = new Zend_Mail_Storage_Pop3(array('host'
='example.com', 'user' ='user_name',
'connectTo' = 'tls')); ?>
C. <?php
$mail = new Zend_Mail_Storage_Pop3(array('host'
='example.com', 'user' ='user_name',
'ssl' = 'tls')); ?>
D. <?php
$mail = new Zend_Mail_Storage_Pop3(array('host'
='example.com', 'user' ='user_name',
'protocol_used' = 'ssl/tls')); ?>
Answer: C

Zend-Technologies덤프   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500 pdf   ZF-100-500시험문제

NO.3 Which of the following functions can be used as a countermeasure to a Shell Injection attack?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. mysql_real_escape_string()
B. escapeshellcmd()
C. regenerateid()
D. escapeshellarg()
Answer: B,D

Zend-Technologies dumps   ZF-100-500최신덤프   ZF-100-500 dumps   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500

NO.4 Which of the following functions sets up start and end element handlers?
A. xml_parse_into_struct()
B. xml_parser_create_ns()
C. xml_set_object()
D. xml_set_element_handler()
Answer: D

Zend-Technologies   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500자격증   ZF-100-500최신덤프

NO.5 Consider the following code segment:
1. <?php
2. require_once 'Zend/Mail.php';
3. ?????????????????????????
4. $mail->setBodyText('This is the test email.');
5. $mail->setFrom('somebody@example.com', 'Sender');
6. $mail->addTo('somebody_else@example.com', 'Recipient');
7. $mail->setSubject('TestSubject');
8. $mail->send();
9. ?>
Which of the following code snippets will you use at line number 3 to initiate Zend_Mail?
A. $mail = new Zend_Mail();
B. $mail => initialize_Zend_Mail();
C. $mail -> Zend_Mail();
D. $mail => Zend_Mail();
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500

NO.6 You have a table created as follows:
create table foo (c1 int, c2 char(30), c3 int, c4 char(10))
If column c1 is unique, which of the following indexes would optimize the statement given below?
Select distinct (c1), c3 from foo where c1=10
A. create unique index foox on foo (c1) include (c3)
B. create index foox on foo (c1)
C. create index foox on foo (c1,c3)
D. create unique index foox on foo (c1,c3)
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies dump   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500자격증

NO.7 You want to set the form method in post and action to /uc/zend.php when you are using the
Zend_Form class. Which of the following code snippets will you use to accomplish the task?
A. <?php
$form->setAction('/uc/zend.php')
->setMethod('post');
B. <?php
echo "<form action=\"/uc/zend.php \" method=POST>";
C. <?php
$form->('/uc/zend.php')
->('post');
D. <?php
$form->Zend::setAction('/uc/zend.php')
->Zend::setMethod('post');
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies   ZF-100-500인증   ZF-100-500

NO.8 Fill in the blank with the appropriate method name.
The__________ method is used to send an email in the HTML format.
A. setBodyHTML()
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies   ZF-100-500기출문제   ZF-100-500

NO.9 Which of the following methods will you use to retain the identity across requests according to the PHP
session configuration?
A. isValid()
B. getIdentity()
C. Zend_Auth::authenticate()
D. getCode()
Answer: C

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NO.10 You have given the following XML data in the tasks.XML file:
<?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?>
<tasklist>
<note>
<tasks>Validate data</tasks>
<details>String Validation</details>
</note>
<note>
<tasks>Secure data</tasks>
<details>Encryption</details>
</note>
</tasklist>
Now, you run the following PHP script:
<?php
$objDOM = new DOMDocument();
$objDOM->load("tasks.xml");
$note = $objDOM->getElementsByTagName("note");
foreach( $note as $value )
{
$tasks = $value->getElementsByTagName("tasks");
$task = $tasks->item(0)->nodeValue;
$details = $value->getElementsByTagName("details");
$detail = $details->item(0)->nodeValue;
echo "$task :: $detail <br>";
}
?>
What should be displayed when this script is executed?
A. The contents of the whole XML document
B. The XML of every tasks and details nodes
C. The contents of every tasks and details nodes
D. The XML of whole XML document
Answer: C

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NO.11 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. On the We-are-secure login page, he enters ='or''=' as a username and
successfully logs in to the user page of the Web site. The We-are-secure login page is vulnerable to a
__________.
A. Land attack
B. Replay attack
C. Dictionary attack
D. SQL injection attack
Answer: D

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NO.12 Fill in the blank with the appropriate method name.
The__________ method is used to retrieve headers when the storage has been opened.
A. getHeader()
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies시험문제   ZF-100-500기출문제   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500자격증   ZF-100-500

NO.13 Fill in the blank with the appropriate class name.
The______ class is used to load files dynamically.
A. Zend_Loader
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies   ZF-100-500 dump   ZF-100-500기출문제   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500

NO.14 Which of the following clauses is used to specify a column or an array of columns by which to sort?
A. Order By
B. WHERE
C. FROM
D. LIMIT
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500 pdf

NO.15 Which of the following methods of Zend_XmlRpc_Client can you use to instantiate a server proxy call?
A. call()
B. getLastResponse()
C. getProxy()
D. XMLResponse
Answer: C

Zend-Technologies자격증   ZF-100-500 dump   ZF-100-500

NO.16 You want to retrieve all the data from any given table. You also want to ensure that no duplicate values
are displayed. Which of the following SQL statements will you use to accomplish the task?
A. SELECT...TOP
B. SELECT...WHERE
C. SELECT...DISTINCT
D. SELECT...ALL
Answer: C

Zend-Technologies   ZF-100-500 dump   ZF-100-500 dumps

NO.17 Celina works as a Database Administrator for Tech Mart Inc. The company uses an Oracle database.
The database contains a table named Employees. Following is the structure of the table:
EmpID NUMBER (5) PRIMARY KEY
EmpName VARCHAR2 (35) NOT NULL
Salary NUMBER (9, 2) NOT NULL
Commission NUMBER (4, 2)
ManagerName VARCHAR2 (25)
ManagerID NUMBER (5)
Celina wants to display the names of employees and their managers, using a self join. Which of the
following SQL statements will she use to accomplish this?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName
FROM Employees e, Employeesm
WHERE e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;
B. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName
FROM Employees e INNER JOIN Employeesm
ON e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;
C. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName
FROM Employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN Employees m
ON e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;
D. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName
FROM Employees e SELF JOIN Employeesm
ON e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;
Answer: A,B

Zend-Technologies pdf   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500덤프

NO.18 Which of the following are the configuration files that are used in Zend_Config?
A. Zend_Config_Server
B. Zend_Config_Xml
C. Zend_Config_Db
D. Zend_Config_Ini
Answer: B,D

Zend-Technologies인증   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500

NO.19 Fill in the blank with the appropriate PHP function.
The_____________ function is used to replace the current session id with the new session id, and to
keep information of the current session.
A. session_regenerate_id()
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500인증   ZF-100-500 pdf

NO.20 Which of the following code snippets will you use to create an index in Zend_Search_Lucene?
1. <?php
2. ?????????????
3. ?????????????
4. $Search_Doc ->addField(Zend_Search_Lucene_Field::Text('url', $docUrl));
5. $Search_Doc ->addField(
6. Zend_Search_Lucene_Field::UnStored(
7. 'contents',
8. $docContent
9. )
10. );

NO.21 Which of the following are the valid methods of the Zend_Date class?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. set()
B. add()
C. check()
D. get()
E. sub()
Answer: A,B,D,E

Zend-Technologies dumps   ZF-100-500 dumps   ZF-100-500

NO.22 Write the appropriate word to complete the sentence below.
___________is used for logging of multiple backends, formatting messages which are sent to the log, and
filtering those messages, which should not be logged.
A. Zend_Log
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500시험문제   ZF-100-500기출문제   ZF-100-500

NO.23 Which of the following is used to create a new Memory Manager?
A. Zend_Memory::factory()
B. Zend_Memory->NewMemoryManager()
C. Zend_Memory->factory()
D. Zend_Memory::NewMemoryManager()
Answer: A

Zend-Technologies덤프   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500덤프   ZF-100-500

NO.24 Which of the following methods are used by Zend_Controller_Action_Helper_Abstract?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. init()
B. preDispatch()
C. setActionController()
D. getResponseId()
Answer: A,B,C

Zend-Technologies   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500 dump

NO.25 Which of the following actions may fail if you have exceeded your quota limit?
A. addTo()
B. send()
C. addBcc()
D. appendMessage()
Answer: D

Zend-Technologies dumps   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500최신덤프   ZF-100-500

NO.26 Which of the following code snippets will you use to instantiate Zend_XmlRpc_Server?
A. $server = Zend_Xml::Zend_XmlRpc_Server()
B. $server = new Zend_Xml();
C. $server = new Zend_XmlRpc_Server();
D. $server = create_new_Zend_XmlRpc_Server()
Answer: C

Zend-Technologies pdf   ZF-100-500시험문제   ZF-100-500 dump

NO.27 You want a formatted date for an RSS feed. Which of the following code syntaxes will you use to
accomplish the task?
A. Zend_Date::RSSFEED
B. Zend_Date::RSS
C. $RSS= new Zend_RSS_Date()
D. Zend_Date->RSS
Answer: B

Zend-Technologies   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500

NO.28 You run the following PHP script:
<?php
$name = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["name"]);
$password = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["password"]);
?>
What is the use of the mysql_real_escape_string() function in the above script.
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It can be used as a countermeasure against a SQL injection attack.
B. It escapes all special characters from strings $_POST["name"] and $_POST["password"] except ' and
".
C. It escapes all special characters from strings $_POST["name"] and $_POST["password"].
D. It can be used to mitigate a cross site scripting attack.
Answer: A,C

Zend-Technologies   ZF-100-500   ZF-100-500기출문제   ZF-100-500기출문제   ZF-100-500최신덤프

NO.29 In which of the following situations will you use the set_exception_handler() function?
A. When you want to restore a previously defined exception handler function.
B. When the try/catch block is unable to catch an exception.
C. When you want to set a user-defined function to handle errors.
D. When you want to generate a user-level error/warning/notice message.
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which of the following is an example of a database connection that needs to be created once at the
beginning of a script and then used throughout its code?
A. Model-view-controller
B. Factory pattern
C. ActiveRecord
D. Singleton
Answer: D

Zend-Technologies   ZF-100-500기출문제   ZF-100-500기출문제   ZF-100-500

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